I was hoping to get some help on this but thought I'd start a new thread. I'm struggling to grasp the way it's explained above given that
PVIF = PV(shareholder cashflows) + PV(change in reserves)
My understanding is:
- The projected assets would also include:
(charges for cost of smoothing, capital, guarantees)
- actual cost of smoothing, capital guarantees
+ (charges for expenses - actual expenses) if asset shares deduct charges for expenses
- (expenses not charges to asset shares) in the case where actual expenses are deducted from asset shares
- claims in excess of assets shares
+ investment income
+ 1/9th of the cost of future bonuses (in a 90/10 fund)
These are the shareholder cashflows that we're projecting. Is that right?
2. Future bonus rates are needed for the BEL calculation and, because shareholder transfers are 1/9th of the cost of bonuses in the BEL, this is where we'd get the last item in the list above from.
3. I'm not sure I understand how the shareholder transfers are the "excess of projected assets over projected BEL?
4. My feeling is that there would always be a PVIF component iro WP business because we're comparing shareholder cashflows with policyholder liabilities - which is not 'like-for-like' as in the case of without profits business. Is that right?