HEllo.. fellows/students/tutor(s) can anyone please tell why all the stock perpetuaties are always calculated in advance. I was going through the notes and i noticed if its not mentioned that coupons are paid in advance or arrears, coupons paid in "Advance" is taken as default. Can anyone please shed some light on it. Regards Montgomery
Not always - but presumably they are including the dividend payable today. But some exam questions start with a dividend payable in 6 month's time or 1 year's time.
