E
Edwin
Member
For;
Investor 1;
P(R = r) = 0.96 if r = 1 & 0.04 if r = 0
thus R~Bernouli(p = 0.96)
Now define Y = 1000R
a) Var(Y) = 1000^2*Var(R) = 0.96*0.04*1000^2 = 38400
and the same can be done for measures b, c and d.
Investor 2
R is still the same i.e R ~ Bernoulli(p = 0.96)
But Y = R1 + R2+ ....+ R1000
i.e Y = ∑Ri ~ Bin(1000,0.96) Since Bin is a sum of INDEPENDENT Bernoulli trials !
Now the trick is with the ER. They have Y ~ Bin (1000, q =0.04). This is the probability distribution of the LOSSES i guess. Therefore to compute VaR we are concerned with the RIGHT tail of the distribution, hence P(Y>t) = 0.05.
Here VaR = 50.2 We are 95 % confident that we will not lose more than 50.2.
Note that had the ER proceded to find VaR = -t, P(Y<t) = 0.05. Then they would have used Y ~ Bin(1000,0.96) which is the probability distribution of the GAINS.
Here VaR = -949.81. We are 95% confident that we will not make less than 949.81 of profits.
Friends, please confirm if my understanding is right here, if so why did the Examiner's report use the probability distribution of Losses.
Would marks have been allocated if one worked with the distribution of gains i.e found that we are 95% confident that we will not make less than 949.81 of profits???
Investor 1;
P(R = r) = 0.96 if r = 1 & 0.04 if r = 0
thus R~Bernouli(p = 0.96)
Now define Y = 1000R
a) Var(Y) = 1000^2*Var(R) = 0.96*0.04*1000^2 = 38400
and the same can be done for measures b, c and d.
Investor 2
R is still the same i.e R ~ Bernoulli(p = 0.96)
But Y = R1 + R2+ ....+ R1000
i.e Y = ∑Ri ~ Bin(1000,0.96) Since Bin is a sum of INDEPENDENT Bernoulli trials !
Now the trick is with the ER. They have Y ~ Bin (1000, q =0.04). This is the probability distribution of the LOSSES i guess. Therefore to compute VaR we are concerned with the RIGHT tail of the distribution, hence P(Y>t) = 0.05.
Here VaR = 50.2 We are 95 % confident that we will not lose more than 50.2.
Note that had the ER proceded to find VaR = -t, P(Y<t) = 0.05. Then they would have used Y ~ Bin(1000,0.96) which is the probability distribution of the GAINS.
Here VaR = -949.81. We are 95% confident that we will not make less than 949.81 of profits.
Friends, please confirm if my understanding is right here, if so why did the Examiner's report use the probability distribution of Losses.
Would marks have been allocated if one worked with the distribution of gains i.e found that we are 95% confident that we will not make less than 949.81 of profits???