Valuation of assets vs. investment return assumption

Discussion in 'SA2' started by curiousactuary, Jul 23, 2020.

  1. I am a bit confused by what constitutes assets under Solvency II for an insurer and how the investment return assumption is formed.

    1. I understand the insurer will invest in shares and corporate bonds issued by other companies for example. This is is in addition to bonds issued by government for example. My understanding is that these investments constitute the insurer's assets?

    My understanding is that an asset has two components: an income component and capital component.

    2. I understand these investments will be valued at market value. Is market value just the capital value or is there an interest component too?
    3. If there is an interest component, then should that be interest earned to date, or interest expected to be earned in the future?
    4. How about the investment return assumption used to calculate best estimate liabilities. Presumably that looks at gains made to date. Is that only gain from interest or does it also include gains from capital too?

    5. For example, insurer A invests in property issued by company B. This is the only asset insurer A invests in. Company B pays insurer A rent of £10,000 earned to date and has a current property value in the market of £90,000. Last year it had a market value of £85,000. The present value of future rent from the property is £50,000.
    i) What is the market value of this asset?
    ii) What is investment rate assumption used for projecting the best estimate liability?
    iii) Is the investment rate assumption different for each future year or is a single rate used?

    6. What about shares, corporate bonds and property issued by the insurer? Is this treated as assets or liabilities?
    7. What is meant by paid share capital? What is meant by unpaid share capital? Can you give examples? Is this referring to shares issued by an insurer to its shareholders?
    8. What is the opposite of an issuer - what is the term used to describe them?
     
    Last edited by a moderator: Jul 23, 2020
  2. Lindsay Smitherman

    Lindsay Smitherman ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    This is covered in Chapter 11. For asset valuation, see Section 1. Assets are valued at market value, where there is a sufficiently deep and liquid market for this to represent a 'fair value' trade. (Otherwise, the value has to be modelled to approximate what would be paid under such a 'fair value' exchange.) In your example, if the current market value is £90k then that is the value of property that would be included in the Solvency II balance sheet.

    For valuing liabilities, under Solvency II discount rates = risk-free rates, irrespective of the assets that are actually held. And for liabilities where it is necessary to project future investment returns (UL and WP), the expected investment return is also the risk-free rate. There is more than one rate, in that the risk-free rates are term-dependent. In other words, a risk-free yield curve is used. This is explained in Section 2.1 of Chapter 11.
     
  3. Lindsay Smitherman

    Lindsay Smitherman ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    Shares issued by a company will generate cash (when first issued), which is held as an asset. There is no liability to repay a shareholder. Bonds issued by a company will also generate cash, but in this case there will also be a liability to repay the bondholder. Unless it is subordinated debt, in which case (under Solvency II) it is not necessary to recognise the repayment liability (since it is subordinate to meeting the obligations due to policyholders).

    Simplistically, unpaid share capital just means that the shareholders of the company haven't yet paid for the equity share of that company which they have purchased.

    Issuers / borrowers issue the shares / bonds. Investors / lenders buy them.
     
  4. Thanks so I take it for WP asset shares, we used the actual investment return earned to date to project the asset share from inception until the current valuation date? In this case, is the return the gain from the interest only, or does it also include capital gain?
     
  5. Lindsay Smitherman

    Lindsay Smitherman ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    Yes: current asset share will be determined using historic investment returns to date, and these returns will include both income and capital gains.
     
  6. Thanks. Could you answer point 1 from my original post? I elaborate on it on point 9 below.

    9. How about when an insurer invests (buys) bonds, shares and property? Would these fall under assets too under corporate bonds, equities and property respectively?

    10. So I can see when the insurer is issuing (selling) bonds and cash, these are treated as cash under assets. How about the company issuing (selling) property? Would these be treated as cash too, or would it fall under property?

    11. So if bonds issued by the insurer need to be repaid as a liability to the bondholder, under which component of the liability do these bonds fall under for Solvency II - for example, does it fall in the best estimate liability component for example? Or does it fall under the term "other liabilities"?
     
  7. Lindsay Smitherman

    Lindsay Smitherman ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    Answer to Q1 from the start is Yes.

    Yes

    I'm not sure what you mean by 'issuing property'. If an insurer currently owns a property, it will be held at market value as an asset. If it sells that property, that asset is no longer on its balance sheet but it instead has the cash that it received from the sale, which will now be part of the assets in the balance sheet.

    The BEL is only in relation to obligations to policyholders, so in the simple balance sheet structure that you need to know about for SA2 it would be 'Other liabilities'
     
    curiousactuary likes this.

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