D
density
Member
I'm confused by the the use of the initial exposed to risk in the binomial model.
As I understand it, the use of initial exposed to risk is justified Balducci assumption. Where can I go to see this justification explained? I assume that it has something to do with generalisation of the naive binomial model.
I also feel like central exposed to risk is poorly explained in the 2015 CT4 notes. Can anyone point me to a good explanation of how central exposed to risk is defined? An example of the sort of question I have is, why are the words "central" and "inital" used?
As I understand it, the use of initial exposed to risk is justified Balducci assumption. Where can I go to see this justification explained? I assume that it has something to do with generalisation of the naive binomial model.
I also feel like central exposed to risk is poorly explained in the 2015 CT4 notes. Can anyone point me to a good explanation of how central exposed to risk is defined? An example of the sort of question I have is, why are the words "central" and "inital" used?