Hi,
I am repeatedly confused by what 'selection' and 'selective effect' actually mean in CP1. Chapter 20 of the CMP notes (page 14) says:
"..we talk about ‘selection’ in the context of ‘anti-selection’. In actuarial practice, however, it has become customary to refer to the source of heterogeneity itself as ‘selection’. Alternatively, it can refer to the subdivision of heterogeneous data into homogeneous classes (so that all risks within a particular group have similar characteristics and can therefore be modelled together)."
Page 19 says: "Those getting married usually experience lighter mortality and morbidity than those of the same age who do not get married. Marriage is said to have a selective effect in respect of mortality and morbidity."
Thanks in advance for any answers to this barrage of questions:
1. Is 'selection' a process which an insurer performs by identifying (proxy) rating factors to split its policies into homogeneous groups so it can better price/project/monitor them?
2. How does this definition apply to temporary initial selection - this means, for example, that an insurer treats life assurance policyholders differently than general population by assuming they have lighter mortality (even though the initial health check becomes increasingly irrelevant in the subsequent months/years)
3. Spurious selection - Page 17 of notes and the Examiners Report for Sept 2019 Paper A Q8(iv) give the example of postcodes/regions in Wales & England as spurious selection. But surely geography is an example of class selection! (page 11 of notes: a postcode with a local, high-performing hospital should have lighter mortality)
4. Time selection -I understand this to mean that an insurer should classify data separately based on its calendar year - if mortality for all ages was better/worse that year. So for example, time selection refers to treating the number of deaths in 2020 different to 1990s (due to medical advances) and separate from 2022 (since less covid-related deaths)
Sept 2019 Paper A Q8(iv) asks: "Suggest possible reasons for the selection occurring in these policies" (influencing a higher number of deaths in recent years) -Why isn't time selection included in the solution: ie. mortality experience in last 3 years may have worsened due to calendar year-specific events like a pandemic?
5. Does 'selective effect' mean that a policyholder moves into a different homogeneous group (since a rating factor has changed) -so an actuary switching career to a stunt performer is considered a 'selective effect' on their mortality?
6. CP1 only mentions selection in context of mortality. Is it equally relevant for banks dividing mortgage borrowers or that an insurer offering cyber insurance should price differently for companies with poor IT security, previous cyber incidents, etc. to avoid anti-selection.
I am repeatedly confused by what 'selection' and 'selective effect' actually mean in CP1. Chapter 20 of the CMP notes (page 14) says:
"..we talk about ‘selection’ in the context of ‘anti-selection’. In actuarial practice, however, it has become customary to refer to the source of heterogeneity itself as ‘selection’. Alternatively, it can refer to the subdivision of heterogeneous data into homogeneous classes (so that all risks within a particular group have similar characteristics and can therefore be modelled together)."
Page 19 says: "Those getting married usually experience lighter mortality and morbidity than those of the same age who do not get married. Marriage is said to have a selective effect in respect of mortality and morbidity."
Thanks in advance for any answers to this barrage of questions:
1. Is 'selection' a process which an insurer performs by identifying (proxy) rating factors to split its policies into homogeneous groups so it can better price/project/monitor them?
2. How does this definition apply to temporary initial selection - this means, for example, that an insurer treats life assurance policyholders differently than general population by assuming they have lighter mortality (even though the initial health check becomes increasingly irrelevant in the subsequent months/years)
3. Spurious selection - Page 17 of notes and the Examiners Report for Sept 2019 Paper A Q8(iv) give the example of postcodes/regions in Wales & England as spurious selection. But surely geography is an example of class selection! (page 11 of notes: a postcode with a local, high-performing hospital should have lighter mortality)
4. Time selection -I understand this to mean that an insurer should classify data separately based on its calendar year - if mortality for all ages was better/worse that year. So for example, time selection refers to treating the number of deaths in 2020 different to 1990s (due to medical advances) and separate from 2022 (since less covid-related deaths)
Sept 2019 Paper A Q8(iv) asks: "Suggest possible reasons for the selection occurring in these policies" (influencing a higher number of deaths in recent years) -Why isn't time selection included in the solution: ie. mortality experience in last 3 years may have worsened due to calendar year-specific events like a pandemic?
5. Does 'selective effect' mean that a policyholder moves into a different homogeneous group (since a rating factor has changed) -so an actuary switching career to a stunt performer is considered a 'selective effect' on their mortality?
6. CP1 only mentions selection in context of mortality. Is it equally relevant for banks dividing mortgage borrowers or that an insurer offering cyber insurance should price differently for companies with poor IT security, previous cyber incidents, etc. to avoid anti-selection.