Tpd

Discussion in 'SP1' started by SpringbokSupporter, Aug 27, 2009.

  1. Is it correct to say IP = TTD + TPD?
     
  2. Charlie

    Charlie Member

    I'm not sure it's quite as simple as that. In particular, it depends on:

    - the nature of the benefit
    - the definition of claim under IP (and CI) and the occupation of the insured
    - the deferred period

    and probably other things too.

    For example:

    1. The nature of a CI benefit is usually a lump sum, whereas under IP, it is income. So even if the same conditions led to a claim under each, the benefit paid would be likely to be different.

    2. If the definition of claim under the IP policy is "unable to do own job", and the definition of claim under the CI policy is related to ADLs, then certain forms of disablement (eg paralysis from the waist down) may not prevent the insured from continuing in an office-based job (hence no IP claim), whereas it might be a valid CI claim (eg mobility and transferrability would be affected).
     

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