When projecting the unit fund and asset shares, would we use a stochastic investment return model with expected returns set to the EIOPA risk free curve (and assumptions for volatilities and correlations set to mirror the actual assets underlying the funds)? And so here, we would just net down the risk free rate.
I'm a bit confused by the modelling of the cost of guarantees. In general, the process would be to simulate the investment returns expected (stochastic model) on the underlying assets and these would be used to calculate the maturity value so as to be able to compare it to the guaranteed maturity value and determine the cost. However, for the purposes of the BEL, it needs to be a market consistent valuation. So do we then rather simulate risk-free rates (regardless of underlying assets) with the distribution around this expected risk-free return mirroring that of our underlying assets (via volatilities and correlations)? In the latter, it would mean just netting down the risk free rates.
In unit fund pricing, we look at whether the fund is contracting or expanding as this indicates when we can expect the unrealised losses or gains to materialise. The BEL, however, is based on policies in force so it's essentially a shrinking book. So does it mean that we always allow for tax in the same way as for a contracting unit fund? Or do we need to assess net cashflows in each projected year to determine whether premiums are expected to be sufficient to cover claims and expense cashflows in that year (and if they are, we wouldn't need to sell assets to fund the shortfall and hence we can treat that year as an "expanding fund")?
Last edited by a moderator: Aug 27, 2017