TailVar

Discussion in 'CT8' started by floydeon, Mar 6, 2008.

  1. floydeon

    floydeon Member

    Question: Suppose hypothetically returns ~ Uniform(-5%,10%).

    1) What is the Var at a 95% confidence level for portfolio worth only £100?
    I get £4.25.

    2) What is the TailVar at a 95% confidence level?

    Is it just the expected shortfall below benchmark -4.25 from part (1)? hmmmmmm........?
     
  2. jensen

    jensen Member

    i think what you said is correct, so the tVaR is 5.1478.
     
  3. floydeon

    floydeon Member

    thanks i agree, however my answer is not the same:

    TVar(95%)=ESF(Var(95%))= ESF(-4.25)
    = integral(-5;-4.25) (-4.25-x).1/15 dx
    = 0.01875

    Please let me know how u got your answer. It is quite possible I can't integrate properly anymore. Thanks.....
     
  4. jensen

    jensen Member

    I'm starting to think I'm wrong because what I did was integrating (-5, t) x/15.dx = 0.05 and solving for t, but i guess this is wrong.

    I look at your formula and redid the integration, from (-5, -4.25) over (-4.25-x)/15 .dx and i got 4.1979. I'm suspicious of this answer because it is positive instead of negative.

    Any clue?
     
  5. floydeon

    floydeon Member

    Even if your answer was -4.1979 it does not exceed the original Var value of -4.25 (TVar must be more conservative than Var i think). I'm not sure, think a tutor needs to help out here please....
     
  6. floydeon

    floydeon Member

    I think the answer is -4.625. I think the core reading is misleading.

    They say E[X!X<L]=integral(-inf:L)(L-x)f(x)dx

    I think E[X!X<L]=1/F(L) integral(-inf:L) x f(x) dx

    Using the second formula things make sense:

    E[X!X<-4.25]= 1/0.05 integral (-5,-4.25) x 1/15 = -4.625 = TailVar(95%)

    i.e the average of all losses exceeding the 95% Value at Risk..

    If we take 0.01875 from earlier post then 0.01875/0.05=0.375 is the expected shortfall relative to benchmark -4.25 and -4.25-0.375=-4.625.
    Hopefully a tutor can clarify this before the April exam because I don't feel like having to fumble around in the exam when its probably only worth 3 marks.
     
    Last edited by a moderator: Mar 7, 2008
  7. jensen

    jensen Member

    I read somewhere that tVaR>VaR and technically, -4.1979 IS larger than -4.25!

    regarding the formula you recommended with the 1/F(L), i'm not sure about that cause i dont have the core reading. I have the CMP and i dont see that formula anywhere.
     
  8. floydeon

    floydeon Member

    I mean exceed as in more towards the tail i.e more conservative risk measure.
    -4.19 is not 'more towards the tail' so it must be wrong.

    Also, the CR is very wrong I researched the topic.
     
  9. jensen

    jensen Member

    funny how it's just the two of us replying to this issue...
     
  10. jensen

    jensen Member

    whoops... looks like it's me who can't integrate properly :S
     

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