I think the answer is -4.625. I think the core reading is misleading.
They say E[X!X<L]=integral(-inf:L)(L-x)f(x)dx
I think E[X!X<L]=1/F(L) integral(-inf:L) x f(x) dx
Using the second formula things make sense:
E[X!X<-4.25]= 1/0.05 integral (-5,-4.25) x 1/15 = -4.625 = TailVar(95%)
i.e the average of all losses exceeding the 95% Value at Risk..
If we take 0.01875 from earlier post then 0.01875/0.05=0.375 is the expected shortfall relative to benchmark -4.25 and -4.25-0.375=-4.625.
Hopefully a tutor can clarify this before the April exam because I don't feel like having to fumble around in the exam when its probably only worth 3 marks.
Last edited by a moderator: Mar 7, 2008