Chapter 19 of the course notes state that in a rating analysis you need to:
1. Project claims to ultimate
2. Project forward to period over which new rates will be charged (allowing for future claims trends)
This order confuses me.
Suppose you have data up to 2024 and that claims take 2 years to develop to ultimate. In your triangle you have the following incremental estimates for a 2024 policy (in nominal values):
2024: 100
2025: 150
2026: 50
The ultimate value would then be 100 + 150 + 50 = 300
My approach
Now if I wanted to price a 2025 policy, I would expect claims to happen in 2025, 2026 and 2027. Therefore I would assume claims are as follows:
2025: 100* (1 + inflation from 2024-2025)
2026: 150* (1 + inflation from 2025-2026)
2027: 50* (1 + inflation from 2026-2027)
The new ultimate value would be 100* (1 + inflation from 2024-2025) + 150* (1 + inflation from 2025-2026) + 50* (1 + inflation from 2026-2027)
The approach in the notes?
The notes suggest projecting to ultimate and then multiplying by one year's inflation (presumably from 2025-2026). This would give an ultimate of 300*(1 + inflation from 2025-2026)
But this is not the same.
Why in the notes do we bother calculating an ultimate value before adjusting for inflation? Surely we should adjust incremental payments for inflation in the new rates period before summing to get an ultimate value?
1. Project claims to ultimate
2. Project forward to period over which new rates will be charged (allowing for future claims trends)
This order confuses me.
Suppose you have data up to 2024 and that claims take 2 years to develop to ultimate. In your triangle you have the following incremental estimates for a 2024 policy (in nominal values):
2024: 100
2025: 150
2026: 50
The ultimate value would then be 100 + 150 + 50 = 300
My approach
Now if I wanted to price a 2025 policy, I would expect claims to happen in 2025, 2026 and 2027. Therefore I would assume claims are as follows:
2025: 100* (1 + inflation from 2024-2025)
2026: 150* (1 + inflation from 2025-2026)
2027: 50* (1 + inflation from 2026-2027)
The new ultimate value would be 100* (1 + inflation from 2024-2025) + 150* (1 + inflation from 2025-2026) + 50* (1 + inflation from 2026-2027)
The approach in the notes?
The notes suggest projecting to ultimate and then multiplying by one year's inflation (presumably from 2025-2026). This would give an ultimate of 300*(1 + inflation from 2025-2026)
But this is not the same.
Why in the notes do we bother calculating an ultimate value before adjusting for inflation? Surely we should adjust incremental payments for inflation in the new rates period before summing to get an ultimate value?