• We are pleased to announce that the winner of our Feedback Prize Draw for the Winter 2024-25 session and winning £150 of gift vouchers is Zhao Liang Tay. Congratulations to Zhao Liang. If you fancy winning £150 worth of gift vouchers (from a major UK store) for the Summer 2025 exam sitting for just a few minutes of your time throughout the session, please see our website at https://www.acted.co.uk/further-info.html?pat=feedback#feedback-prize for more information on how you can make sure your name is included in the draw at the end of the session.
  • Please be advised that the SP1, SP5 and SP7 X1 deadline is the 14th July and not the 17th June as first stated. Please accept out apologies for any confusion caused.

Short value of security (apr 2005 qu 1)

M

maz1987

Member
One final question before the exam on Thursday!

Qu 1, April 2005:

13z6gqv.jpg


Now, I'm having trouble here. I understand the method of finding the value (short or long) of a forward contract at a time t>0, but that's when we are given the value of the security at time t. We then find the difference between the two strike prices and discount it to time t.

However, in this question we are only given the price K_0 (= £98%). We are also given the price of the asset at time 0, which is £95%. So by my reckoning, the value to the investor at time t=0 is just £98%. Because that's what he's going to get paid at time t=1. Obviously that's not the answer, because nothing in the exam is that simple (oh, if only!), but I can't see why not.

Thanks
 
Qu 1, April 2005:

13z6gqv.jpg


Now, I'm having trouble here. I understand the method of finding the value (short or long) of a forward contract at a time t>0, but that's when we are given the value of the security at time t. We then find the difference between the two strike prices and discount it to time t.

However, in this question we are only given the price K_0 (= £98%). We are also given the price of the asset at time 0, which is £95%. So by my reckoning, the value to the investor at time t=0 is just £98%. Because that's what he's going to get paid at time t=1.

The way it's phrased is slightly confusing - the strike price given is actually something that was agreed before the current time.

So use the 95 to get the current strike price if the investor took out a forward contract today and then do the subtraction and discount thang.

That help?
 
Completely! Thanks so much. I never would have interpreted it that way in an exam :(
 
Back
Top