T
TurnipKing
Member
Hi,
First let me apologize as I'm aware this has been asked before but the provided answers are not making sense to me. In the titled question I don't understand why we go through all the trouble of deriving % reported figures for each development month just to apply them to an ultimate loss figure that was gained through applying (earned premium)*(expected loss ratio) for each month. Could we not have just subtracted the incurred figure of 10m from 0.9*(earned premium for year) and arrived at a very similar answer that is equally if not more valid since the answer in the exam solution (and by extension ASSET pack) require additional assumptions on the loss ratio applying to each month of earnings as opposed to overall.
Thanks
First let me apologize as I'm aware this has been asked before but the provided answers are not making sense to me. In the titled question I don't understand why we go through all the trouble of deriving % reported figures for each development month just to apply them to an ultimate loss figure that was gained through applying (earned premium)*(expected loss ratio) for each month. Could we not have just subtracted the incurred figure of 10m from 0.9*(earned premium for year) and arrived at a very similar answer that is equally if not more valid since the answer in the exam solution (and by extension ASSET pack) require additional assumptions on the loss ratio applying to each month of earnings as opposed to overall.
Thanks