Muskan Hamirwasia
Keen member
Hi,
I want to clarify my understanding on the answer to part (a) the realistic mortality assumptions were increased in isolation :
As per the examiner's report it states that there will be no impact on the net asset value. I want to understand that the mortality benefit payments are also part of liabilities, so if there is no change in the net asset value, is it because we are talking about change in the future which will impact the profits and not the current value of assets and liabilities
?
Please help me understand if my thinking is correct or is there some other reason behind this?
I want to clarify my understanding on the answer to part (a) the realistic mortality assumptions were increased in isolation :
As per the examiner's report it states that there will be no impact on the net asset value. I want to understand that the mortality benefit payments are also part of liabilities, so if there is no change in the net asset value, is it because we are talking about change in the future which will impact the profits and not the current value of assets and liabilities
?
Please help me understand if my thinking is correct or is there some other reason behind this?