The solution calculates the baseline hazard=0.6/exp(-0.035) And then takes that baseline hazard and multiplies it with exp(0.15) which is the hazard from the covariate i.e. 0.6*exp(0.15)/exp(-0.035), the solution says this is the probability of the female getting discharged. But isn't this the hazard of being discharged rather than the probability?
