D
dimitris13
Member
hi
the question asks what are the op risks wrt moving from pim to im which is basically changing the op risk from sf to an int model.
it says in the solution
"for the annuity business this will include inadequate analysis of in force business"
what does this mean and where it refers to?
the question asks what are the op risks wrt moving from pim to im which is basically changing the op risk from sf to an int model.
it says in the solution
"for the annuity business this will include inadequate analysis of in force business"
what does this mean and where it refers to?