13. (ii)
Can someone please explain why the reserve equation at the end of the 17th policy year 17V is 50000(1.0192308)^16...... and not ^15 as we have to divide the whole thing by 1.0192308 one more time to get the term assurance function from 6% to 4% interest?
[In the question, at t=1, the benefit payable is 50000, at t=2 it is 50000x1.0192308, and so on, at t=n it is 50000x1.0192308^(n-1)]
Thanks!
Last edited by a moderator: Apr 9, 2018