still not convinced about the 6.25% bit
Sorry for being a bit obsessive about this problem -- I understand that in the specific case an approximate solution might be all you need -- but I'm still not convinced about the 6.25% (=1/16) bit.
I think that the earned premium in the first year should be 1/12 rather than 1/16:
(a) A policy starting at time t will have a cumulative risk of (1-t)^2/4 in year 1.
(b) The amount of premium written in interval (t, t+dt) will be P*dt (=P once integrated between 0 and 1).
(c) Therefore the earned premium between 0 and 1 is the integral between 0 and 1 of P*(1-t)^2/4*dt = P/12.
The solution in the report seems to rely on the idea that since policies are written uniformly over the year you will get the correct result by assuming that all policies are written in mid-year -- and a mid-year policy indeed contributes for (1/2)^2/4 = 1/16 of the premium – but this doesn’t seem correct to me when risk is not uniform. Think of this "extreme" situation: what if the risk density were 0 for the first six months, and uniform after that? The above approximation would conclude that the premium earned in year 1 is zero!
However, I might be missing something, or maybe I'm answering the wrong question. Could someone please comment on this?
Cheers
Last edited by a moderator: Mar 26, 2008