D
delta_tango
Member
hello
Please note the following extract from the question:
"A binomial model for a non-dividend-paying security with price St at time t is as follows: the price at time (t + 1) is either 1.25St (up-jump) or 0.8St (down-jump). Cash receives interest of 10% per time unit.
The value of S0 is 100. A derivative security with price Dt at time t pays the following returns at time 2:
D2 = 1 : if S2 = 156.25
D2 = 2 : if S2 = 100
D2 = 0 : if S2 = 64."
P(iii)
"Derive the corresponding hedging strategy, i.e. the combination of the underlying security and the risk free asset required to hedge an investment in the derivative security."
The solution:
"to hedge at time 1 if S1 = 125 we let the amount invested in the stock be φ and the amount invested in cash be ψ and solve:
1.25φ + 1.1ψ = 1
0.8φ + 1.1ψ = 2"
My question is if we are trying to hedge at time 1 then why do we equate the portfolio value at time 1 to the payoff in time 2?
any help would be greatly appreciated
Thanks
Please note the following extract from the question:
"A binomial model for a non-dividend-paying security with price St at time t is as follows: the price at time (t + 1) is either 1.25St (up-jump) or 0.8St (down-jump). Cash receives interest of 10% per time unit.
The value of S0 is 100. A derivative security with price Dt at time t pays the following returns at time 2:
D2 = 1 : if S2 = 156.25
D2 = 2 : if S2 = 100
D2 = 0 : if S2 = 64."
P(iii)
"Derive the corresponding hedging strategy, i.e. the combination of the underlying security and the risk free asset required to hedge an investment in the derivative security."
The solution:
"to hedge at time 1 if S1 = 125 we let the amount invested in the stock be φ and the amount invested in cash be ψ and solve:
1.25φ + 1.1ψ = 1
0.8φ + 1.1ψ = 2"
My question is if we are trying to hedge at time 1 then why do we equate the portfolio value at time 1 to the payoff in time 2?
any help would be greatly appreciated
Thanks