J
James789
Member
I think I do not really understand reserving.
Taking the example of a profit test, the reserve at the start of the policy is always 0. This doesn't seem to make sense since there is a sum assured, so surely some funds need to be set aside at the start of the policy in case of death in the first year of the policy? I would have though that a prudent time 0 reserve would be the PV of the sum assured, but this does not seem to be how reserving works. Instead (perhaps in earlier chapters of the notes now) reserves usually take into account the probability of the event occurring, so if death does occur there is always a shortfall i.e. the reserve does not cover the sum assured.
Then in a profit test we have the reserve at the end of year 1 being p_x 1_V , which I can see is interpreted as being 'the reserve of 1_V is only needed if the life survives the first year', but again this doesn't seem very intuitive.
Please help!
Taking the example of a profit test, the reserve at the start of the policy is always 0. This doesn't seem to make sense since there is a sum assured, so surely some funds need to be set aside at the start of the policy in case of death in the first year of the policy? I would have though that a prudent time 0 reserve would be the PV of the sum assured, but this does not seem to be how reserving works. Instead (perhaps in earlier chapters of the notes now) reserves usually take into account the probability of the event occurring, so if death does occur there is always a shortfall i.e. the reserve does not cover the sum assured.
Then in a profit test we have the reserve at the end of year 1 being p_x 1_V , which I can see is interpreted as being 'the reserve of 1_V is only needed if the life survives the first year', but again this doesn't seem very intuitive.
Please help!