I've got that it s using the probability of surviving. i.e. for the 1st year...
the reserve at the start of 1st year is \(V_0 =0 \) and at the end should be \(V_1 = P\). however, not all policyholders survive during the first year, the probability of survive is \({}_1 p_{60}=0.9920\). Moreover, there are no interests earned on reserves since \(V_0=0\), therefore the cost of increasing the reserve during the 1st year is \[ V_0 - V_1 = 0-0.9920P = -0.9920P\] for in-force policyholders. what about year 2 though?
Last edited by a moderator: Jul 31, 2015