T
Trevor
Member
Hi, I have a question about application of Solvency II Basis in Embedded Value calculation.
Referring to Section 3 of chapter 18, there are 4 points discussing why the PVIF shouldn't be ignored even if SII basis is used.
In the 2nd point, I understand that if SII uses Matching and Volatility Adjustment, which doesn't equal to the company's own illiquidity premium, then they should include the PVIF for extra profit if their illiquidity premium is higher than the Matching Adjustment.
But In the case of WITHOUT matching adjustment, shouldn't investment return = discount rate?
Because SII is in a market consistent basis, discount rate is definitely = risk free rate if no matching or volatility adjustment.
And investment return should be calibrated to risk free rate regardless of asset backing it.
So investment return = discount rate for all cases, therefore there should be NO DIFFERENCE at all. No additional future profit.
Can someone explain where I understood it wrongly?
At the same time I want to understand also what does "calibrated to risk free rate" means, I see this a couple of times in the examiner reports and course notes, but always assume it means set equals to risk free rate. Is this the correct understanding?
Regards,
Trevor
Referring to Section 3 of chapter 18, there are 4 points discussing why the PVIF shouldn't be ignored even if SII basis is used.
In the 2nd point, I understand that if SII uses Matching and Volatility Adjustment, which doesn't equal to the company's own illiquidity premium, then they should include the PVIF for extra profit if their illiquidity premium is higher than the Matching Adjustment.
But In the case of WITHOUT matching adjustment, shouldn't investment return = discount rate?
Because SII is in a market consistent basis, discount rate is definitely = risk free rate if no matching or volatility adjustment.
And investment return should be calibrated to risk free rate regardless of asset backing it.
So investment return = discount rate for all cases, therefore there should be NO DIFFERENCE at all. No additional future profit.
Can someone explain where I understood it wrongly?
At the same time I want to understand also what does "calibrated to risk free rate" means, I see this a couple of times in the examiner reports and course notes, but always assume it means set equals to risk free rate. Is this the correct understanding?
Regards,
Trevor