i didnt quite understand the answer to Q2(i), CID April 2000. I've posted to Wilmott on this one for a hopefully quick response: http://www.wilmott.com/messageview.cfm?catid=8&threadid=36388 if anyone here knows feel free to respond.
gareth, looking at your post... this is same standard proof in core reading and in hull..future forward prices equal deterministic interest rates.. for a futures position, no cashflows at inception, only margin cashflows in the intervening periods till maturity forward position, agian no inception cashflows, only maturity cashflow in this proof, both positions have long bond initial investment (Fo or Go) to create identical expiry values... hence identical expiry payoffs means identical initial investment by no arbitrage
soz, typo in first sentence future prices = forward prices under deterministic interest rates or whatever the standard conditions were...