Hey All, I had two questions about the solution for 16.4. 1) Why would cases that show a reduced NPV (with all the new cfs) be undercharging for the guarantee? I would think profitability would be decreased with the guarantee. 2) Why is the projected cost of the guarantee a function of the fund size? Is it because the fund size will dictate the annuity amount based on the conversion factor, and the larger the annuity, maybe the larger the cost or providing it? Thanks.