It's probably a basic question, but I'm confusing myself with this:
Suppose we're planning to lend for a 5 year period, $1 at 6% continuously compounded. The current (continuous) term structure, say, is also flat at 6% for all terms. So the present value now is 1*exp(-.06*5)*exp(.06*5) = 1. Straight forward.
Now suppose the borrower repays the money in 2 years - and the three year continuously compounded rate for re-lending is say, 10%, and let's say the term structure is also flat at that rate.
Is the present value:
1*exp(-.06*5)*exp(.06*2)*exp(.10*3) - i.e, reinvested for a period of 3 more years after the 2nd year
or
1*exp(-.06*2)*exp(.06*2) - where we ignore reinvestment?
Suppose we're planning to lend for a 5 year period, $1 at 6% continuously compounded. The current (continuous) term structure, say, is also flat at 6% for all terms. So the present value now is 1*exp(-.06*5)*exp(.06*5) = 1. Straight forward.
Now suppose the borrower repays the money in 2 years - and the three year continuously compounded rate for re-lending is say, 10%, and let's say the term structure is also flat at that rate.
Is the present value:
1*exp(-.06*5)*exp(.06*2)*exp(.10*3) - i.e, reinvested for a period of 3 more years after the 2nd year
or
1*exp(-.06*2)*exp(.06*2) - where we ignore reinvestment?