It is explained in chapter 15 that for property the distributions of X might vary by risk size, hence it is better to use Y = X/M when constructing loss curves.
What confuses me is that the derivation of the expected loss cost for a property layer (page 10) in terms of Y relies on the assumption that
E = E[X][E[N]
However E = sum(Xis from 1:N) which will only equal E[X]E[N] if the Xis are identically distributed. (Which will not be the case if X varies by risk size)
So we have a formula for loss cost in terms of Y, which is only valid if the Xis are identically distributed. This seems to defeat the purpose of using Y rather than X.
What confuses me is that the derivation of the expected loss cost for a property layer (page 10) in terms of Y relies on the assumption that
E = E[X][E[N]
However E = sum(Xis from 1:N) which will only equal E[X]E[N] if the Xis are identically distributed. (Which will not be the case if X varies by risk size)
So we have a formula for loss cost in terms of Y, which is only valid if the Xis are identically distributed. This seems to defeat the purpose of using Y rather than X.