Question of pension says: Calculate the cost of benefit as a percent of salary for a new member aged 35, with salary in the next year of £20000 In calculation of pensionable salary they've divided by s35 but since next year's salary is given so shouldn't it be divided by s36?
By "the next year", they mean "the coming year" ie from age 35 to age 36. This is the "next year" of the person's life. So we use s35 - the base age for the salary scale should be the person's age at the start of the year to which the salary applies.
So when do we use base as sx+1, Like what will be the language in the question for using sx+1 as a base?
To need to use a base of sx+1, you'd need to be told the salary the person would be earning in the year of age from x+1 to x+2. This is very unlikely to be provided for a life currently aged x, as it is the salary a year in the future.
