Hi
Need to keep in mind here that for with-profits business the actual (gross) premiums being paid are far higher than what's expected to be needed to meet benefits and expenses. These margins in the premium should be paid out as future bonuses.
A gross premium valuation:
Value of benefits (sum assured + bonuses declared to date)
+ Value of expenses
- Value of gross premiums
(1) capitalises these margins (ie turns them into a value now). As the premiums are expected to be more than enough to cover "benefits + expenses" this value will be negative (ie they are an asset rather than a liability). So, it takes the future profit now as you say
I think it depends on how the future bonuses have been allowed for in the premium basis. If they are just allowed by taking the margins in assumptions (such as mortality, expenses) for the future and we are using exactly the same assumptions (mortality, expenses) in GPV, then I dont think we still will capitalise the future bonuses. ??
- However if there was an explicit assumption about the future bonuses in the premium basis and realistic assumptions about the other elements (e.g. mortality) and then if we are are not EXPLICITLY allowing for the future bonuses and still using the same(premium basis) assumptions in GPV then we are actually capitalising the future bonuns.
(2) doesn't do anything with it. Which is the problem really What is the problem in this? Do you mean it is same as the 1st point?. It wouldn't be too bad if the gross premium valuation formula also allowed for the value of future bonuses. So, if we're using a gross premium valuation method for with-profits business, we should include a prudent allowance for future bonuses in our formula.
This issue doesn't arise with a net premium valuation method as the net premium is worked out on the same assumptions as those used to value the benefits (and so isn't "too much" to cover the cost of the benefits).
Hope that helps
Cheers
Lynn