G
Gareth
Member
I find the core reading definition very ambiguous:
"Research suggests that investors are less risk-averse when faced with a multi-period series of gambles and that the frequency of choice / length of reporting period will also be influential."
Maybe I don't interpret "multi-period" correctly, but this statement to me implies that an investor given lots of short term bets rolling over time will be less risk averse.
This compares to the original definition by Benartzi and Thaler:
"...economic agents are averse to losses at an irrationally short horizon, due to institutional reasons or because they are affected by a behavioural bias (in particular because they are too anxious to evaluate the performance of their portfolio on a short term basis"
which is the opposite to my interpretation of the IoA version. Clearly the 2nd is correct and matches the ActEd questions on this topic.
Did anyone else find this bit of core reading confusing?
"Research suggests that investors are less risk-averse when faced with a multi-period series of gambles and that the frequency of choice / length of reporting period will also be influential."
Maybe I don't interpret "multi-period" correctly, but this statement to me implies that an investor given lots of short term bets rolling over time will be less risk averse.
This compares to the original definition by Benartzi and Thaler:
"...economic agents are averse to losses at an irrationally short horizon, due to institutional reasons or because they are affected by a behavioural bias (in particular because they are too anxious to evaluate the performance of their portfolio on a short term basis"
which is the opposite to my interpretation of the IoA version. Clearly the 2nd is correct and matches the ActEd questions on this topic.
Did anyone else find this bit of core reading confusing?