Hi, please kindly help me. I am struggling to understand why the sum at risk is the sum assured minus the reserve (for a context it is the solution to the 1st question in section 3.2 The risks of Chapter 1 Life insurance product 1). Isn't reserve the insurer's money and then shouldn't the sum at risk be the sum assured minus the policy's asset share (if it is positive)? Thank you for your help.