Moratorium Underwriting

Discussion in 'SP1' started by Trevor, Jul 2, 2021.

  1. Trevor

    Trevor Ton up Member

    Hi, I am trying to understand how the moratorium underwriting works

    I've been reading the core reading in chapter 27 section 1.1, and also cross referring to the past paper (ASET) of September 2014 Q4ii.
    I am quite loss when cross referring them because they seem lead me to different understanding of it

    If I were to think logically (guessing what the core reading & past paper solution meant):
    There are two periods, call these period A & B, so:

    Period A (say 5 years)
    If inception date is 1/1/2021, period A will be from 1/1/2021 to 31/12/2025
    All conditions are claimable, except treatments/conditions happening within the last X years before inception.
    Question: what is X years, is this defined separately in the contract?

    Period B (3 years)
    From 1/1/2026 to 31/12/2028,
    If there is symptom/treatment for the preexisting condition during period A, then this period may start after 1/1/2026.
    ie: if there are symptoms during period A on 31/12/2023, then period A has to be restarted, period B will then start 3 years later on 1/1/2029
    Question: What if the policyholder lies about the symptom? They could feel very unwell, but do not consult a doctor so period A doesn't reset

    If no symptoms, this period B will start at the earliest possible date on 1/1/2026
    In this case, all conditions are claimable, including those that happened during period A.
    However if claimed on 31/12/2027, period A restarts. The earliest next claim will be on 1/1/2033. So there is a 5 years "cooldown" period




    I am very confused reading the last bullet point at the CMP, at the end of page 3 of chapter 27.
    In that page, the first bullet point talks about exclusion in the last 5 years (Period A), but the second point mentioned "after a second defined period".
    Where did this second period comes from? Is this "Second" period actually referring to B, therefore in total there are 3 periods rather than 2?
    And in that case, the last bullet point of this page is actually talking about the third period (quoting the second period).

    Can someone explain this underwriting mechanic to me? I am very confused cross referring these 2 sources.

    Thanks
     
  2. Mark Willder

    Mark Willder ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    Hi Trevor

    Your description here is correct. I just think you have misinterpreted which two periods the notes refer to. The Cor Reading is actually referring to what you have called X and A. The length of X and A will be defined in the policy - there is no need to define B as this just starts once A is over.

    Yes, a major disadvantage of the moratorium approach is that the policyholder may decide not to go for treatment during period A.

    Best wishes

    Mark
     
  3. Trevor

    Trevor Ton up Member

    Thanks Mark, that is very clear now.

    However now I want to reconcile this information back to the September 2014 Q4 ii.
    In the question, it mentions a moratorium underwriting, which exclusion is removed completely after 5 years irrespective of the policyholder health and treatments received.

    I am looking at the ASET solution sheet (which organised the points nicely)
    There are 3 periods here:
    Period 1 which exclusions are fully applicable, this corresponds to period A in my previous post (correct me if I am wrong)
    Period 2 which claims will be payable if there are no symptoms or treatments in period 1, this corresponds to period B of my previous post
    Period 3, which exclusions are completely waived

    Is this 3rd period a special product feature for this question specifically?
    My understanding is the policy will alternate between A and B (Period 1 & 2) throughout the policy term, if there are claims made.
    There is no time point where exclusions will be waived indefinitely.

    This is what confused me when I cross refer between the notes and ASET. because I can't find any references to period 3 in the notes.
     
    Last edited: Jul 2, 2021
  4. Mark Willder

    Mark Willder ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    Hi Trevor

    That's right, as ASET says, the fact that the exclusion is completely removed after 5 years is an additional feature of this contract - moratorium contracts do not usually work this way.

    The question tells us that the exclusion will be waived indefinitely after 5 years for the special moratorium product, regardless of the treatments received.

    Best wishes

    Mark
     
    Trevor likes this.

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