So is it correct to think of the credit risk capital charge = Asset amount * (Risk weighting * 8%). eg a bank has a 100m loan with 50% risk weighting, the capital charge for credit risk = 100 * 50% * 8% = 4m.
If that's the case, why would they bother to introduce the intermediate step "risk weighting", rather give a prescribed factor directly, say 4% (i.e. 50%*8%) for this class of loan?
Also, for the market risk, is [ VaR * (1/0.08)] equivalent to Risk Weighted Asset in credit risk? In other words, the VaR itself is the capital charge for market risk. Is it correct?
Last edited by a moderator: Aug 22, 2012