Hi Ankit If an asset is less marketable than another which has the same income level, the one that is less marketable would (all else being equal) be expected to have a lower price. If you feed this into the definition of "running yield", this could answer your question. [There is another angle: in some jurisdictions some types of investor might prefer income relative to capital or vice versa if the two types of investment return are taxed differently. Therefore high or low running yield assets might be more or less attractive, and hence marketable, in such a situation.] Hope that helps.
