S
scarlets
Member
Can I just clarify that... when a question talks about all the business written in a with-profits fund (e.g. Q1 Apr 2010) that the with-profits policyholders are entitled to share of profits emerging from all the without-profits contracts.
Whereas for a company with one Long-term fund (e.g. Q1 Sept 2010) that contains with and without profit products written in it; some without-profits products will have profits shared with WP policyholders and some without-profits products will have profits only going to shareholders?
Is that was 'participating' means, that WP policyholders can participate in the profits from a certain product/fund?
Whereas for a company with one Long-term fund (e.g. Q1 Sept 2010) that contains with and without profit products written in it; some without-profits products will have profits shared with WP policyholders and some without-profits products will have profits only going to shareholders?
Is that was 'participating' means, that WP policyholders can participate in the profits from a certain product/fund?