This is related to the Q5 in Oct 2010 ST9 exam. The question was about defining 'Liquidity Risk' for the insurer and how to manage the risk.
A life insurance company sells immediate annuities. It seeks as far as possible to match its future annuity payments with receipts from a portfolio of corporate bonds and equity release mortgages. The corporate bonds are purchased with the intention of holding them to maturity.The equity release mortgages are loans taken out on residential property by the homeowners, and are written with a loan to property value ratio of 25%. These loans are repayable on death, transition to long term care, or at the request of the homeowner. Interest rolls up at the agreed interest rate until the mortgage is repaid. The eventual mortgage repayment is equal to the lower of the house value and the principal together with accrued interest, both determined as at the repayment date.
(i) Define liquidity risk as it applies to this insurance company.
(ii) Explain whether it is appropriate to hold capital to mitigate liquidity risk.
(iii) Discuss how the insurance company could investigate and manage its liquidity risk.
In the model answer, whilst it defines the Liquidity Risk correctly as short term cashflow uncertainty, I am confused on the answer given for the management of this risk.
The answer focuses on general asset-liability management related to assets and liabilities in hand? In doing so it talks about long term issues as well (like mortality/morbidity experience, inflation and others).
I always thought the one should be talking about things that can cause liquidity issues in meeting liabilities due within the next 1-2 years.
Have I got this wrong? It will be helpful if anyone can elucidate this matter.
A life insurance company sells immediate annuities. It seeks as far as possible to match its future annuity payments with receipts from a portfolio of corporate bonds and equity release mortgages. The corporate bonds are purchased with the intention of holding them to maturity.The equity release mortgages are loans taken out on residential property by the homeowners, and are written with a loan to property value ratio of 25%. These loans are repayable on death, transition to long term care, or at the request of the homeowner. Interest rolls up at the agreed interest rate until the mortgage is repaid. The eventual mortgage repayment is equal to the lower of the house value and the principal together with accrued interest, both determined as at the repayment date.
(i) Define liquidity risk as it applies to this insurance company.
(ii) Explain whether it is appropriate to hold capital to mitigate liquidity risk.
(iii) Discuss how the insurance company could investigate and manage its liquidity risk.
In the model answer, whilst it defines the Liquidity Risk correctly as short term cashflow uncertainty, I am confused on the answer given for the management of this risk.
The answer focuses on general asset-liability management related to assets and liabilities in hand? In doing so it talks about long term issues as well (like mortality/morbidity experience, inflation and others).
I always thought the one should be talking about things that can cause liquidity issues in meeting liabilities due within the next 1-2 years.
Have I got this wrong? It will be helpful if anyone can elucidate this matter.