How is P a risk neutral probability measure_APRIL 2008_3?

Isn’t it confusing for the examiners to say P is a pricing measure, in B&R before page 38, the process S is assumed to be a Martingale under the meaure P. Then after taking into account the time value of money, a new measure is found such that B^(-1)*S is a martingale, and this measure is called Q.

Is it okay for examiners to use ‘P’ for ‘Q’??

 

(Acted tutors correct me, but...) I don't think it matters what term you use. UK Apr 2010 Q3 used P instead of Q for risk neutral probability measure again.

 

I agree that there is nothing wrong notation-wise in using P for Q, except that I had interpreted the P in this question as referring to the real world measure, so I tried to convert to the risk free measure and got things wrong. Using P for Q must be suffixed by an explanation that it is the risk neutral measure.