O
olly
Member
If anyone could explain to me the following I would be greatly appreciative.
P.104 Baxter & Rennie (Pricing foreign exchange securities) deals with pricing a call option on an exhange rate, C_t. It tells us that as the forward price F is the expectation of C_T under the martingale measure Q, the value of C_T can be written in the form:
F * exp( sb*Z - 0.5*sb^2) where sb denotes sigma bar which is the volatility of of log(C_T) i.e. (sigma^2)*T and Z is a normal(0,1) random variable under Q.
This expression change (or at least a similar technique) for C_T comes up later in the book so I would be happier if I understood it. It seems to quote it as formal result but without showing how. Perhaps its very simple if I think about it but my brain is a little fried at the moment!
P.104 Baxter & Rennie (Pricing foreign exchange securities) deals with pricing a call option on an exhange rate, C_t. It tells us that as the forward price F is the expectation of C_T under the martingale measure Q, the value of C_T can be written in the form:
F * exp( sb*Z - 0.5*sb^2) where sb denotes sigma bar which is the volatility of of log(C_T) i.e. (sigma^2)*T and Z is a normal(0,1) random variable under Q.
This expression change (or at least a similar technique) for C_T comes up later in the book so I would be happier if I understood it. It seems to quote it as formal result but without showing how. Perhaps its very simple if I think about it but my brain is a little fried at the moment!