Hi Phil,
Got the same as you on the log normal question (its cause the variance is huge compared to the mean, so probability of negative returns is distinct).
I too having read your post about the bond practice question was well wide for the NPV question. ty!!!
On the capital gains test question, the second investor actually makes a capital loss, so should assume redemption as early as possibble, I wouldnt mind but I started to do the CGT then scribbled it out and just said they also make a capital gain, in hindsight I have no idea why I did this!
Do you remember if you got quite high numers for the MWRR and TWRR (>10% p.a.)?
The only other question I can think of was the value of the forward contract.
Last edited by a moderator: Apr 23, 2009