General question on Distribution

Is the below mentioned valid for a Uniform distribution?

U(0,50) = 50U(0/50, 50/50) = 50U(0, 1)

Thanks

Balvin

 

Yes - if you take a sample from U(0,1) and multiply each value by 50, you get a sample from U(0,50).

U(0,50) and 50U(0,1) have the same properties, ie give the same values for probabilities, means, variances.

 

Thank you