Suspicious ? I don't think so.
Does it happen regularly? No idea!
Regulators are only concerned about statutory solvency and the insurer's ability to meet claims, etc.
Before any reinsurance premium is paid in the future, the insurer must first pay out for any claims, then what's left over can pay for the reinsurance. It is not like the strain of having to repay this reinsurance will affect their ability to meet claims, since claims will have been paid first, provisions set aside, and only then whats left over will pay the reinsurance prem/loan repayment.
Also, the transaction won't be hidden - it will be shown as a reinsurance commission (i.e. profit) I suppose in the P & L a/c's (I think - maybe wrong). In essence the reinsurer is buying the insurer's future profit stream (or a percantage of it). In some financial reinsurance contracts, repayment of this "loan" is dependent on the level of future profits being high enough (otherwise it's not repayed until such time).
That's my understanding.
Comments?
(if this was an X-assignment w.r.t my answer I'd expect my marker to write "not quite" & award me only 25% of the marks available for this question. )
Last edited by a moderator: Feb 25, 2006