Hi I have a question on the solution to this question. Solution line 1: " The central exposed to risk only takes account of the time up to exit,..." Does this mean that the central exposed to risk counts the day of exit? In the reading material, Chapter 11, Page11, it is stated that we follow the convention that the day of entry and exit do not count. Referring to the solution for Q4.4: "....if a life would have been included in the deaths figure were it to die on a particular day, then the life should contribute to the exposed to risk for that day" "that day" refers to the day of exit. Again the solution has considered the day of exit in the central exposed to risk. May I know the reason for the difference between the reading material and the Q&A Bank solution? There are a few other questions which state very clearly whether it should be included or not. Hence can I say that we can write down our assumption during the exams and stay consistent.
Ambiguity in exact definition of exposed to risk? Hi Alex_AK I like the principle "if a life would have been included in the deaths figure were it to die on a particular day, then the life should contribute to the exposed to risk for that day". This is also what we do in Kaplan-Meier or Nelson-Aalen estimates. However, I'm sorry for any possible ambiguity we may have caused in this question but you have stated the bottom line yourself: "we can write down our assumption during the exams and stay consistent." Good luck! John
