In the example, don't we have to include the 5% arrangement fee and explain that as well? Or would that be considered too much technical info? The example calculation doesn't seem to include this 5%, does it? The first year's income would be 3865, with the 5% wouldn't it??
Odd isn't it?! In ActEd's CA3 ASET we comment that "Inexplicably, the Examiners' solution ignored the 5% arrangement fee". Personally, I think it is material, not too technical and, like you, I would have included it in my answer.
