I
Ivanhoe
Member
Part of core reading
For without-profits business, embedded value is effectively the release of any margins within the solvency reserves relative to the assumptions used within the embedded value calculation.
A large part of embedded value constitutes of net assets as well (I am referring to the example of Acted in section 2.4 where best estimate valuation and EV is compared). So, why does this para state that embedded value (EV) is effectively.......
It is important that the reserves used in the determination of net assets are
consistent with those used in the determination of the present value of future
profits.
What does "consistent" mean? In this regard, an extract from Sep 2009 problem that is comparing the experience assumption of EV with Supervisory assumptions
Supervisory reserves are determined by discounting future liability cashflows
using a risk-adjusted yield based on the assets being used to back the liabilities with a prudent margin built in. The prudent margin is deducted from the discounting yield for supervisory reserve calculations.
The yield permitted may only be based on income and not on total investment
return including gains.
For the PVFP calculation, two different types of “investment return”
assumptions are required: one to project investment returns into the future and one to discount the future profits (the risk discount rate). Projected future investment returns within the PVFP calculation will be based on the total expected return and are unlikely to include any material prudent margins
What do they mean by "projecting investment returns"?Does it imply the interest that we earn on opening reserves each year i.e the realistic rate?
What is the rate that is then considered for the reserves in Present value of future profits calculation? My understanding is that it is the same prudential rate that we consider for setting of the supervisory reserves since they ought to be consistent. Will some one please explain?
For without-profits business, embedded value is effectively the release of any margins within the solvency reserves relative to the assumptions used within the embedded value calculation.
A large part of embedded value constitutes of net assets as well (I am referring to the example of Acted in section 2.4 where best estimate valuation and EV is compared). So, why does this para state that embedded value (EV) is effectively.......
It is important that the reserves used in the determination of net assets are
consistent with those used in the determination of the present value of future
profits.
What does "consistent" mean? In this regard, an extract from Sep 2009 problem that is comparing the experience assumption of EV with Supervisory assumptions
Supervisory reserves are determined by discounting future liability cashflows
using a risk-adjusted yield based on the assets being used to back the liabilities with a prudent margin built in. The prudent margin is deducted from the discounting yield for supervisory reserve calculations.
The yield permitted may only be based on income and not on total investment
return including gains.
For the PVFP calculation, two different types of “investment return”
assumptions are required: one to project investment returns into the future and one to discount the future profits (the risk discount rate). Projected future investment returns within the PVFP calculation will be based on the total expected return and are unlikely to include any material prudent margins
What do they mean by "projecting investment returns"?Does it imply the interest that we earn on opening reserves each year i.e the realistic rate?
What is the rate that is then considered for the reserves in Present value of future profits calculation? My understanding is that it is the same prudential rate that we consider for setting of the supervisory reserves since they ought to be consistent. Will some one please explain?