CT6 IAI May 2011 Q9

Discussion in 'CT6' started by Bharti Singla, Mar 5, 2017.

  1. Bharti Singla

    Bharti Singla Senior Member

    Hii all
    In this qus., part (iii) how the prior mean is 1? The prior pdf is g(∅)= ∅exp(-∅). Then it should be gamma(2,1) dist. and mean of it is 2.
    I don't know what's going wrong :(. Please anyone explain how the prior mean is 1?
    Thanks
     

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    Bharti Singla, Mar 5, 2017
    #1
    Sunil Sanga likes this.
  2. John Lee

    John Lee ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    There is a mistake in the solution - they have just integrated the PDF and got the total probability, which is 1.

    They haven't found the mean which should be the integral of theta times the PDF.
     
    John Lee, Mar 9, 2017
    #2
    Bharti Singla likes this.
  3. Bharti Singla

    Bharti Singla Senior Member

    Yeah!
     
    Bharti Singla, Mar 9, 2017
    #3

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