Helloo. Just wondering, what is the intuition behind the first part of the solution on Page 80 of Revision Notes Booklet 3:
V(1)= 175,000 + 10,000 (1- (a˙˙70/a˙˙46))
[=reserves on 31/12/05 + sum assured x tVx]
^I don't understand why we are multiplying the sum assured with what I assume to be 24V46
●Why not just add the sum assured only since that is what the company would be paying out to that one person who is dying?
●Why is it not a˙˙69/a˙˙46?
●Is it just me or is this question really confusing?
Thanks to anyone who can help!
Last edited by a moderator: Aug 16, 2017