P
Polina Hadjipanayiotou
Member
I am struggling to understand the explanation for this part. In my understanding, MWRR is lower because the fund performs better after the cash inflow than before and thats why the fund is larger after the cash inflow.
Answer based on Examiner's Report:
"The MWRR is lower as fund performs better before the cash inflow than after.
Then, as the fund is larger after the cash inflow on 1 May 2011, the effect of
the poor investment performance after this date is more significant in the
calculation of the MWRR."
Thanks in advance.
Answer based on Examiner's Report:
"The MWRR is lower as fund performs better before the cash inflow than after.
Then, as the fund is larger after the cash inflow on 1 May 2011, the effect of
the poor investment performance after this date is more significant in the
calculation of the MWRR."
Thanks in advance.