Hi,
I have a small question on question (iii) on page 9.
The question asks to list the circumstances when an institutional investor would be very relaxed about volatile asset values, and the last bullet point given in answer is: perfectly matched assets and liabilities (eg unitised funds).
I'd like to know why unitised funds qualify in this case?
Thanks a lot and an early merry Christmas!
Last edited: Dec 23, 2021