Last minute question - maybe someone can answer it.
Looking at September 2006 question 4.
I thought debentures would receive some investment return (being a bond?) whether they are convertible or not.
Therfore I thought that the zero coupon meant that there were no coupons eg annually, but that it would be issued at discount say 95%.
Both ASET and the examiners took the price of the debenture to be 100%.
Is this what we should use in exams?
I find this strange as in another exam (april 2005 or 2006 i think) the examiners were surprised that very few candidates were aware that loans would cashed in for the nominal value.
Another thing is that they deducted the company's dividend yield from the yield on the preference share to give a rate expected from the standard shares.
Is there more to this than the expectation that the equity would yield more than preference shares?
If you're reading this in time (and needing it like I am)- Good luck in the exam!!
Thanks
Last edited by a moderator: Apr 15, 2008