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Confusion regarding notation

A

Adienl

Member
I'm getting very confused with the inconsistent notation being used throughout the solutions of past year exam question solutions. In particular, I want to know when we condition the share price\([S_t]\) distribution at time \(t>u\) on \(S_u\), and when we don't.
I'm not sure if I've explicitly expressed my doubt here. However, any input from you would be delightful.
Thanka you for reading.
 
Yes. Currently I am looking at Question 3 part (i), September 2011. The question asks for distribution of \(S_t\), however, isn't it supposed to be \(S_t|S_0\)?
Pretty confused
 
Oh, I see what you mean. \(S_t\) is a random process, but it has to start somewhere, and so will always depend to some extent on its initial value \(S_0\). In the question you mention, the expression for \(S_t\) depends on \(S_0\), but the distribution doesn't appear to because \(S_0=1\). The conditioning is implied.

Does that help?
 
Oh, I see what you mean. \(S_t\) is a random process, but it has to start somewhere, and so will always depend to some extent on its initial value \(S_0\). In the question you mention, the expression for \(S_t\) depends on \(S_0\), but the distribution doesn't appear to because \(S_0=1\). The conditioning is implied.

Does that help?
But isn't this mathematically incorrect to not denote that \(S_t|S_0\) ? I understand what you're saying though, that we don't need to explicitly mention this particular conditioning all the time? Is that correct?
Thanks for the help.
 
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