S
shinmo
Member
Chapter 18
Ideally, separate cashflows have different risk discount rates to reflect their inherent riskiness.
Does this mean:
- If mortality assumption is highly volatile, then risk discount rate for death benefit should be lower, so that PV(death benefit) can be higher and more reserves can be set aside?
- If investment income is highly uncertain then we use higher risk discount rate to discount these investment cashflows more?
Chapter 26
Is value-in-force same as negative reserves or PVFP component of embedded value?
How do these three differ?
Chapter 22
1) When we calculate SV on the pricing basis, are the notes referring to original or current premium basis?
2) Solution 22.11 SV for unit-linked business:
If there is reduced level allocation rates rates, why would a fixed monetary deduction be appropriate as surrender penalty?
Thanks for the help in advance!
Ideally, separate cashflows have different risk discount rates to reflect their inherent riskiness.
Does this mean:
- If mortality assumption is highly volatile, then risk discount rate for death benefit should be lower, so that PV(death benefit) can be higher and more reserves can be set aside?
- If investment income is highly uncertain then we use higher risk discount rate to discount these investment cashflows more?
Chapter 26
Is value-in-force same as negative reserves or PVFP component of embedded value?
How do these three differ?
Chapter 22
1) When we calculate SV on the pricing basis, are the notes referring to original or current premium basis?
2) Solution 22.11 SV for unit-linked business:
If there is reduced level allocation rates rates, why would a fixed monetary deduction be appropriate as surrender penalty?
Thanks for the help in advance!