Hi,
I am struggling to understand why we need to switch to real-life probability measure for Q5 (ii) and why risk-neutral probability measure is considered wrong here. I think these two measures should be equivalent so either one would work.
Also, I do not understand why in this case the risk-neutral probability of an upward move is higher than the real-life probability of an upward because normally it should be the other way around.
Can anybody help here? Thanks a lot!
Last edited: Sep 16, 2021